Download Here JKSSB Panchayat Accounts Assistant Recruitment Exam Model Paper 2020 with Solutions
1. What is the total number of districts in J&K?
A. Fifteen B. Eighteen
C. Seventeen D. Twenty
2. The Fundamental Right, which cannot be suspended even during an emergency is:
A. Right to equality
B. Right to freedom of expression
C. Right to movement
D. Right to life
3. The union territory of J&K is similar to:
A. Puducherry
B. Chandigarh
C. Dadar & Nagar Haveli
D. Delhi
4. The ‘Geneva of the East’ is called the city of Srinagar due to:
A. Tourism potential
B. Floriculture potential
C. Horticulture potential
D. Forest resources
5. The State of J&K formally split into two
Union Territories (UTs) on:
A. Oct. 31, 2019
B. Nov. 30, 2019
C. Aug. 31, 2019
D. Dec. 31, 2019
6. Thein Dam is built across:
A. Beas B. Ravi
C. Ujh D. Basantar
7. Which is the significant crop of J&K state?
A. Saffron B. Jowar
C. Bajra D. Wheat
8. The oilseeds-rape, mustard & linseed are mostly grown in:
A. Kathua B. Doda
C. Kashmir D. Jammu
9. Mata Vaishno Devi shrine is located on:
A. Trikuta Hills
B. Dauladhar Range
C. Pir Panjal
D. None of these
10. Which type of coal is found in Riasi?
A. Bituminus B. Peat
C. Lignite D. Anthracite
11. Largest freshwater lake of India is:
A. Dal B. Wular
C. Anchar D. None of these
12. The first survey of mineral wealth in Jammu & Kashmir was made in:
A. 1930 B. 1924
C. 1940 D. None of these
13. Who was the first King in the history of Kashmir, whose name was mentioned by Kalhana?
A. Balbhadra B. Krishna
C. Gonanda D. Damodra
14. The last King of the Gonanda dynasty was:
A. Javeta Gupta
B. Pratapaditya
C. Lalitaditya
D. Balditya
15. In which period Buddhism entered in Kashmir?
A. Karkata dynasty
B. Utpala dynasty
C. Gupta dynasty
D. Greek era
16. Most important source of irrigation in Jammu & Kashmir is:
A. Tanks B. Canals
C. Wells D. None of these
17. Who is the author of book “Kashmir : Behind the Vale”?
A. M.K. Gandhi
B. Abul Kalam Azad
C. Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
D. M.J. Akbar
18. In the Lok Sabha, the total number of constituencies for Jammu & Kashmir are:
A. 6 B. 5
C. 10 D. None of these
19. Who laid the foundation of the Dogra dynasty?
A. Hari Singh B. Gulab Singh
C. Karn Singh D. None of these
20. Which Mughal ruler paid much tribute to the beauty of Kashmir?
A. Akbar B. Jahangir
C. Shahjahan D. Aurangzeb
21. The Chinar trees were imported by Mughals from which country?
A. Persia (Iran) B. U.S.A.
C. Russia D. Indonesia
22. Between whom treaty of Amritsar was signed?
A. British Govt. and Gulab Singh
B. British Govt. and Hari Singh
C. British Govt. and Karan Singh
D. British Govt. and Ranbir Singh
23. In which century Kashmir was annexed by Mughals?
A. 14th century B. 15th century
C. 16th century D. 17th century
24. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched in:
A. 2014 B. 2015
C. 2016 D. 2017
25. Make in India scheme was launched in:
A. 2013 B. 2014
C. 2015 D. 2016
26. Mehrajuddin Wadoo is associated with:
A. Hockey B. Cricket
C. Football D. Golf
27. In which year the sustainable Development Goals came into effect?
A. 2016 B. 2017
C. 2018 D. 2019
28. Capital formation in an economy depends on:
A. Total income
B. Total demand
C. Total savings
D. Total production
29. Ayushman Bharat Programme was launched in:
A. 2018 B. 2019
C. 2020 D. None of these
30. Vidhu Vinod Chopra is a famous
A. Journalist B. Cricketer
C. Film Maker D. None of these
31. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of drawing two aces?
A. 1/24 B. 2/22
C. 1/22 D. 1/24
32. If the lower and upper limits of a class are 20 and 50 respectively, the mid-points of the class is:
A. 20 B. 25
C. 35 D. 40
33. Six establishments are to be selected from a list of 60 establishments by systamatic random sampling. If the fist number is 8 the next one is:
A. 8 B. 16
C. 18 D. 21
34. Example of a time series
A. The effect of natural strikes.
B. floods
C. Earthquakes
D. All of these
35. The study of fertility differences between specific population groups
A. Fertility variation
B. Fertility analysis
C. Differential growth
D. Differential fertility
36. Let n(A) = n. Then the number of all relations on A is:
A. 2 raised power n
B. 2 raised power n(t)
C. 2 raised power n2
D. None of these
37. If
Then the need value of x is:
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 6
38. If
39. The ponits (5, –4, 2), (4, –3, 1), (7,6,4) and (8, –7, 5) are the vertices of
A. a rectangle
B. a square
C. a parallelogram
D. None of these
40. One card is drawn from pack of 52 cards. The probability that it is the card of a king or spade is:
A.1/25
B.3/26
C.4/13
D.3/13
41. Planning from below is known as:
A. functional planning
B. structural planning
C. centralized planning
D. decentralized planning
42. Intellectual property rights include:
A. Patents
B. Copy rights
C. Trade mark
D. All of the above
43. “Round Tripping” in international trade is a method:
A. To boost foreign direct investment
B. Of financing start ups
C. To evade tax
D. To increase exports
44. Which of the following will directly increase the GNP?
A. A rise in the market price
B. A surplus in budget
C. An increase in investment
D. A deficit in budget
45. The National income is equal to
A. GNP – Subsides – Taxes
B. NNP – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
C. NNP – Direct Taxs + Subsides
D. GNP – Subsidies + Taxes
46. Which of the following is a reason for inflation?
A. Deficit financing
B. Growth in per capita income
C. Structural deficiencies
D. All the above
47. Increase in demand is shown by
A. Movement along the same demand curve
B. Shifts of the demand curve
C. The highest point on the demand curve
D. Lowest point of the demand curve
48. The time element in price analysis was introduced by
A. J.R. Hicks
B. J. M. Keynes
C. Alfred Marshall
D. J.S. Mill
49. Equilibrium quantities in markets characterized by oligopoly is:
A. Lower than in monopoly markets and
higher than in perfectly competitive
markets.
B. Lower than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets.
C. Higher than in monopoly markets and
higher than in perfectly competitive
markets.
D. Higher than in monopoly markets and
lower than in perfectly competitive
markets.
50. A three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states having population above__________?
A. 10 lakhs B. 15 lakhs
C. 20 lakhs D. 25 lakhs
51. Who among the following is a Personal Computer manufacturer from Taiwan:
A. Sony B. IBM
C. Samsung D. Acer
52. Direct X is a:
A. Computer Part
B. Software that drives Graphic hardware
C. A User Interface
D. None of these
53. In which generation of computers, Transistors were used?
A. First generation computers
B. Second generation computers
C. Third generation computers
D. Fourth generation computers
54. Integrated circuits contained:
A. vaccum tube B. transistor
C. condensor D. resistance
55. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
A. binary B. decimal
C. hexadecimal D. octal
56. Each digit in Binary Coded Decimal (BCD) is known as
A. Bit B. Byte
C. Nibble D. None of these
57. The port most often used to connect a
keyboard to a computer is a(n):
A. Ethernet port B. FireWire port
C. WiFi port D. USB port
58. To connect your computer to a network, the_____ port may be used.
A. serial B. FireWire
C. USB D. Ethernet
59. Which is a unit representing the no bits of discrete?
A. Baud B. Byte
C. Bit D. All of the above
60. The personnel who deals with the computer &
its management put together are called:
A. Software B. Humanware
C. Firmware D. Hardware
61. The software used to convert source program
instructions to object instruction is known as:
A. Compiler
B. Assembler
C. Interpreter
D. Language processor
62. The terms “red book”, “yellow book”, and
“orange book” refer to:
A. SCSI
B. ide
C. floppy drive technology
D. CD-ROM standards
63. Pick the correct choice for the 80386SXCPU.
A. 16 bit word size, 16 bit data path
B. 32 bit word size, 16 bit data path
C. 8 bit word size, 32 bit data path
D. 32 bit word size, 8 bit data path
64. Which device uses a DMA channel?
A. Modem
B. Network Card
C. Sound Card
D. All of the above
65. Direct entry data devices include:
A. telephone, communications and bar codes
B. keyboards, cartridges and bar code reader
C. machine communication, keyboards and
data collection devices
D. analog computers, digital computers and
time clocks
66. A disadvantage of the laser printer is:
A. It is quieter than an impact printer
B. It is very slow
C. The output is of a lower quality
D. None of these
67. Which of the following is a device that changes
data from coded form to clear form?
A. Keyboard B. Decoder
C. Mnemonics D. Bar code
68. What does the ‘L’ symbol indicates to the left of the ruler?
A. the ‘L’ Symbol denotes a center tab
B. the ‘L’ Symbol denotes start point of text
C. the ‘L’ Symbol denotes a flush left-tab
D. the ‘L’ Symbol denotes a flush right tab
69. What would be the symbol if you want to use the center tab?
A. Bakward ‘L’ symbol
B. ‘L’ Symbol
C. Inverted ‘T’ symbol
D. None of the above
70. One important function of MS-Excels over MS-Word is:
A. Formating numerals
B. Decimal alignment
C. Mathematical calculation
D. Font Selection
71. The DBMS is a general-purpose software that facilitates the process of defining, constructing, manipulating and A. destreeting B. retreiving
C. restoring D. sharing
72. The information stored in the Catalog is called
A. meta-data B. mini-world
C. record D. All of the above
73. Text in a column is generally aligned _____.
A. justified B. right
C. center D. left
74. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called?
A. Column B. Value
C. Address D. Cell
75. Which protocol needs to be installed for Internet access on a network ?
A. TCP/IP B. TELNET
C. IPX/SPX D. NetBEUI
76. Which of the following characteristics of an intranet are true?
A. An intranet can be a part of a Local Area Network (LAN)
B. An intranet can work with Wide Area
Networks (WAN)
C. An intranet may be restricted to a
community of users
D. All of the above
77. To view information on the web you must
have a ______.
A. cable modem
B. web browser
C. Domain Name Server
D. hypertext viewer
78. The virus that spread in application software
is called as:
A. Boot virus B. Macro virus
C. File virus D. Anti virus
79. DMA stands for
A. Direct Memory Access
B. Distinct Memory Access
C. Direct Module Access
D. Direct Memory Allocation
80. What is OMR?
A. Optical Magnetic Reader
B. Optical Mark Reader
C. Optical Memory Reader
D. Optical Monitor Reader
81. Double entry principle means
A. Having debit for every credit and similarly
credit for each debit.
B. Writing all the entries twice in the book.
C. Maintaining the double account for all
busness transactions.
D. Writing two times the same entry.
82. Petty cash may be used to pay
A. the expenses relating to postages and
conveyance
B. salaries and wages to the final staff
C. for the purchase of furniture and fittings
D. None of these
83. Bill Receivable Book is a part of the
A. Ledger
B. Balancesheet
C. Journal
D. Profit and Loss Account
84. Error of commission do not permit
A. The trial balance to agree
B. Correct the total of balance sheet
C. Correct totalling of trial balance
D. None of these
85. Profit and loss account of business shows the
A. Net profit earned
B. Gross profit earned
C. Balance of all accounts
D. Capital employed in business
86. Bills receivable account is
A. an expense Account
B. an asset Account
C. a liability Account
D. a revenue Account
87. Double entry system of bookkeeping refers to
a system where
A. the number of accounts with a debit
balance must agree with the number of
accounts with the credit balance
B. each transaction is recorded twice, once
in journal and then in legder
C. equal debit and credit entries are made for
each transaction
D. each transaction is recorded in two set of
account books
88. Which of the following statements best
explains the relationship between journal and ledger?
A. First recording in journal and then posting
to ledger completes the double entry of the transaction.
B. The journal is the book of original entry
where as the ledger is the book of second
entry.
C. The journal is the book for analytical
record and ledger is the book for
chronological record.
D. The process of recording, in the journal is
called journalising, the process of recording in the ledger is called posting.
89. Which of the following errors is revealed by
trial balance?
A. Wrong amount entered in the book of
original entry
B. Wrong amount entered in a ledger account
C. Complete omission of an entry from the
book of original entry
D. All of these
90. Which of the following errors are revealed by trial balance?
A. Omission of an amount from the trial
balance
B. Posting of the wrong amount
C. Wrong totalling of the book of original entry
D. None of these
91. Which of the following books should be used to record purchase of merchandise an account?
A. Cash book B. Purchase book
C. Sales book D. Journal
92. Agreement of the trial balance may not indicate that
A. no error remains undetected
B. double entry has been completed
C. arithmetic accuracy is reasonably proved
D. all ledger accounts have been correctly
posted
93. Petty cash system is designed
A. to meet the needs of small businesses
B. to cover small and miscellaneous income
C. to cover the small expenditure to be paid in cash
D. to cover both small incomes and
expenditures
94. Which of the following is an accounting equation ?
A. Capital – Assets – Liabilities
B. Capital – Assets – Liabilities
C. Assets – Liabilities – Capital
D. Liabilities – Assets – Capital
95. Which of the following is an equation?
A. Assets = Equities
B. Assets = Liabilities – Capital
C. Assets = Liabilities – Equities
D. Assets = Equities + Liabilities
96. Preparation of Trial Balance helps, mainly, in
A. summarising business transactions
B. verifying that ‘generally accepted
accounting principles’ have been observed
C. finalising the ‘sources and uses of funds’
statement
D. locating errors if any in books of accounts
97. The Balance sheet of a company
A. Must be prepared in the form set by law
B. May be prepared in any form
C. Should be prepared in any form so as to
give a true and fair picture of the state of affairs of the company.
D. Items should be shown in order of performance.
98. The profit or loss disclosed by the accounts
of a company is
A. Transferred to share capital account.
B. Shown in the column of “Current liabilities
and provisions”.
C. Shown in the column of ‘Reserves and
surp- lus’ under a separate account.
D. Transferred to General Reserve.
99. Which of the following is not required to be
made under statutes?
A. Profit & Loss
B. Funds Flow Statement.
C. Balance Sheet
D. None of these.
100. Social obligation of accounting refers to
A. The completion of journal entires.
B. The preparation of final accounts.
C. Cost recording.
D. Servicing the needs of various stake-
holders.
101. The long term assets that have no physical
existence but, possess a value is known as:
A. Current assets B. Fixed assets
C. Intangible assets D. Investments
102. The assets that can be easily converted into
cash within a short period (i.e., 1 year or less) is known as:
A. Current assets B. Fixed assets
C. Intangible assets D. Investments
103. The debts which are to be repaid within a
short period (1 year or less) are referred to as:
A. Current Liabilities
B. Fixed liabilities
C. Contingent liabilities
D. All of the above
104. The first step of accountancy is:
A. Journal Entry
B. Ledger Posting
C. Balancing of Accounts
D. Trial Balance
105. The account which can never have a credit
balance is:
A. Bank B. Cash
C. Debtor D. Creditor
106. The short description of a transaction written
at the end of a journal entry is known as ______.
A. Summary B. Narration
C. Memo D. Info
107. Cash payments are recorded on the _______
of the Cash Book.
A. Debit side B. Credit side
C. Both sides D. None of these
108. Accounting provides information on
A. Cost and income for managers
B. Company’s tax liability for a particular
year
C. Financial conditions of an institutions
D. All of the above
109. In Journal, the business transaction is recorded
A. Same day
B. Next day
C. Once in a week
D. Once in a month
110. In accounting, an economic event is referred
to as:
A. Cash B. Bank statement
C. Transaction D. Exchange of money
111. Which of the following scientist was awarded
Nobel Prize for his work in photosynthesis?
A. C.B. Van Niel
B. Melvin Calvin
C. Robert Hooke
D. F.F. Blackman
112. One of the organs excretes water, fat and
various Catabolic wastes is the:
A. Spleen B. Skin
C. Kidney D. Salivary glands
113. Which of the following is most important for the growth of children up to the age of 14?
A. protein B. milk
C. fat D. vitamins
114. What is responsible for diptheria and
influenza?
A. virus and bacteria respectively
B. bacteria and virus respectively
C. bacteria
D. water pollution
115. Common salt is:
A. sodium chloride
B. calcium chloride
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. magnesium carbonate
116. The process that involves a chemical change is:
A. mixing of petrol and ethyl alcohol
B. dissolution of common salt in water
C. combustion of petrol in motor cars
D. refining of petroleum of fractional
distillation
117. Steel contains
A. 0.1–2% carbon
B. 5–10% carbon
C. no carbon
D. 20% carbon
118. The unit of astronomical distance is:
A. nautical mile
B. kilometre
C. argstrom
D. light year
119. What type of mirror can be used to obtain the
real image of an object?
A. convex mirror
B. concave mirror
C. plane mirror
D. no mirror can produce a real image
120. Which of the following waves/rays are produced
by nuclear changes in the atom?
A. infrared rays
B. light waves
C. x-rays
D. y-rays
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